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Questions and Answers - page 4
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Questions from interested visitors, answered by Dr. V.

The following series of questions are from another person who has a basic question about the equivalence principle:

Q1: Comments: Hi. My query relates to the equivalence principle. Here's my question..

O and O' are two observers located in a remote region, drifting in interstellar space. O' begins to accelerate uniformly wrt O, and so experiences (equiv. princ) a uniform grav.
field, taken to be due to the motion of the cosmos at large wrt O'. So for O' spacetime is curved. But O experiences no such curvature (grav field) and so verifies that the components of the curvature tensor are zero in a fairly extensive neighbourhood. But being a tensor, the vanishing of its components in one frame imply it is zero in all other frames as well! So O' should also see zero curvature. Do O and O' have their own copies of spacetime, each with different curvatures?

This has really been bugging me!

A1: Hello,

The Einstein/Minkowski relationship was based on the Lorentz equations, as applied to a spherical waves traveling through space. Their method is based on the four-dimensional time/space equation in which time and space are allowed to vary orthogonally - what does that mean?. I have adopted an opposite approach in which all electromagnetic waves bend in space, rather than having time/space do the bending (time and space do not vary with
velocity).

The principle of relativity asserts that all processes in nature occur in accordance with the same laws (no disagreement here). In the Minkowski interpretation, the equations of transformation correspond to a rotation in the four dimensional system of reference through the imaginary angle arctg (i(v/c)). I suppose that this is the "curvature tensor" to which you
refer. I do not know what that means. My interpretation is that observer O' would experience quite a different picture of the universe, as compared to O, and that he would observe some type of curvature (as compared to observer O) if the velocity was sufficiently high. This would not violate the principle of relativity.

From electromagnetic field theory, the transverse waves of a transmitting antenna bend in the direction that they are moving. For a spherical wave, this would not result in an orthogonal bending (define your "tensor"), whereas it is indeed true for transverse waves. This is a fundamental problem that has been overlooked, and it has tremendous impact on physical theories, such as the Einstein/Minkowski relationship. In my opinion, allowing time and dimensions to vary is certainly one approach, but it leaves more questions than answers. When waves bend, neither time nor space are violated.

Good question! Not sure that my answer will satisfy your curiosity, as my approach to this problem is quite different from the contemporary norm. Also, I am just an electronic engineer, using different techniques to solve problems.

Reply from questioner:

Interesting response!

Many thanks.

End of Q & A

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