Questions and Answers - page
from interested visitors, answered by Dr. V.
following series of questions are from another person who has a basic question
about the equivalence principle:
Comments: Hi. My query relates to the equivalence principle. Here's
and O' are two observers located in a remote region, drifting in interstellar
space. O' begins to accelerate uniformly wrt O, and so experiences (equiv.
princ) a uniform grav.
field, taken to be due to the motion of the cosmos at large wrt O'. So for
O' spacetime is curved. But O experiences no such curvature (grav field)
and so verifies that the components of the curvature tensor are zero in
a fairly extensive neighbourhood. But being a tensor, the vanishing of its
components in one frame imply it is zero in all other frames as well! So
O' should also see zero curvature. Do O and O' have their own copies of
spacetime, each with different curvatures?
This has really been bugging me!
relationship was based on the Lorentz equations, as applied to a spherical
waves traveling through space. Their method is based on the four-dimensional
time/space equation in which time and space are allowed to vary orthogonally
- what does that mean?. I have adopted an opposite approach in which all
electromagnetic waves bend in space, rather than having time/space do the
bending (time and space do not vary with
The principle of relativity asserts that all processes in nature occur in
accordance with the same laws (no disagreement here). In the Minkowski interpretation,
the equations of transformation correspond to a rotation in the four dimensional
system of reference through the imaginary angle arctg (i(v/c)). I suppose
that this is the "curvature tensor" to which you
refer. I do not know what that means. My interpretation is that observer
O' would experience quite a different picture of the universe, as compared
to O, and that he would observe some type of curvature (as compared to observer
O) if the velocity was sufficiently high. This would not violate the principle
From electromagnetic field theory, the transverse waves of a transmitting
antenna bend in the direction that they are moving. For a spherical wave,
this would not result in an orthogonal bending (define your "tensor"),
whereas it is indeed true for transverse waves. This is a fundamental problem
that has been overlooked, and it has tremendous impact on physical theories,
such as the Einstein/Minkowski relationship. In my opinion, allowing time
and dimensions to vary is certainly one approach, but it leaves more questions
than answers. When waves bend, neither time nor space are violated.
Good question! Not sure that my answer will satisfy your curiosity, as my
approach to this problem is quite different from the contemporary norm.
Also, I am just an electronic engineer, using different techniques to solve
Reply from questioner:
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